Tunnel Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers preparation for gate exams - Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1.      Circular section of tunnels is not suitable for
2.      What is the correct sequence of the following events of construction of a shaft in rock ?
3.      A good blast with a good yield is obtained if the cut hole is
4.      As compared to a single free face, if a charge of explosive is placed equidistant from two faces, then the yield
5.    Which of the following are percussion drills ?
6.    Drifters can be used to drill
7.      If 'N' is the number of shafts used, then the total number of feces available for attacking the excavation and construction in tunnels are
8.    The correct sequence of drilling equipment for increasing size of holes in tunnels is
9.    Which of the following is not a component of the shield ?
10.    In compressed air tunneling, the volume of free air provided is
11.    Assertion A : English method of tunneling requires more time as compared to other methods of tunneling.
Reason R : In English method of tunneling, the masons and excavators have to work alternately.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below :
12.    American method of tunneling
13.     Which of the following lining material is useful for shield driven tunnels in sub aqueous regions ?       
14.    If 'D' is the diameter of tunnel in metres, then the thickness of lining in mm, as per the empirical formula is given by
15.    Which one of the following tunnelling methods is used for laying under ground sewers ?
16.    Ribs are used for strengthening and stiffening the liner plate for tunnels of diameter greater than
17.    The most suitable soil for compressed air tunneling is
18.    The needle beam method of tunnelling
19.    Which of the following methods of tunnelling is used for long tunnels at great depths ?
20.     In Belgium method of tunnelling
21.     What is the correct sequence of the following events in rock tunnelling?
22.     Drift method of tunnelling is used to construct tunnels in
23.     Consider the following situations.
24.    Which one of the following is considered to be an advantage of the heading and benching method of tunnel construction?
25.    In "full face" method of constructing tunnels, the first operation relates to
26.    Which one of the following is a component of a shield for tunnelling ?
27.    Assertion A : When rock conditions are favourable, it will not be necessary to take up concrete lining concurrently with the driving operations till the full length of the tunnel has been driven through rock.
Reason R : A tunnel through rock, hard or soft, does not need any concrete lining.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:

Dock and Harbor Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers preparation for gate exams - Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1.        Assertion A : Depth and width required at the entrance to a harbour are more than those required in the channel.
Reason R : The entrance to a harbour is usually more exposed to waves as compared to the harbour itself.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
2.       When a ship floats at its designed water line, the vertical distance from water line to the bottom of the ship is known as
3.       The maximum harbour depth below lowest low water is generally equal to
4.       The minimum diameter of turning besin, where ships turn by going ahead and without tug assistance should be
5.       Dead weight tonnage of a ship
6.     In basins subjected to strong winds and tide, the length of the berthing area should not be less than
7.     As per Stevenson's empirical formula, the approximate value of the height of the wave in metres is given by
8.     As per Berlin's formula, the length of wave in metres is given by
9.     Assertion A : Intervention of undulations in the sea bed reduces the depth of wave at the section.
Reason R : No wave can have a height greater than the depth of water through which it passes.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
10.      Consider the following statements in regard to Beaufort scale for wind speeds,
11.      At a given port, the fetch is 400 nautical miles, the maximum height of storm wave will be
12.      In a two lane channel, bottom width of channel is given by
13.      Minimum width of ship clearance shall be
14.     Select the incorrect statement.
15.     Assertion A : Marine structures are made specially bulky and strong.
Reason R : Sea insects result in undermining of the hardest and the soundest building material. Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
16.     The most popular method of construction of wall breakwaters is
17.      As compared to wall type breakwater, mound type breakwater
18.     The difference in height between highest high water and lowest low water is called
19.     If the maximum spring rise is 2 m and height of the waves expected is 4 m , then the breakwater height above the datum will be
20.     If H is the height of the wave expected, then the height of the breakwater is generally taken as
21.     Assertion A : Basin walls have to be of much grater height than dock walls.
Reason R : Tidal basins are subject to fluctuations of levels due to tidal variations.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
22.      In multiple point mooring system, vessel is secured to minimum of
23.     By increasing the rise of lockgates,
24.     Which of the following is a fixed type mooring accessory ?
25.     The significant wave height is defined is the average height of the
26.     If Hs is the significant wave height, then the average wave height and highest wave height respectively are given by
27.     When a wave strikes a vertical breakwater in deep water, it is reflected back and on meeting another advancing wave of similar amplitude merges and rises vertically in a wall of water. This phenomenon is called
28.     Which of the following structures are constructed parallel to shore line to develop a demarcating line between land area and water area ?
29.     Which of the following type of sea walls results in greatest protection of shore structures?
30.     Assertion A : Large size stones are required in stone revetment in shore protection.
Reason R : Resistance of stone to wave force is proportional to its volume and wave force is proportional to the exposed area of the stone.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below.
31.      Which of the following are repair docks ?
32.      Which of the following structures protects the shore by trapping of littoral drift?
33.     Which of the following conditions of loading imposes the greatest load on the foundation in case of dry docks?
34.     For designing the dock, the proportion of ship load assumed to be borne by keel blocks is
35.     A ship strikes the berth generally at an angle
36.     Consider the following statements.
37.     A ship is berthed in a chamber and lifted by principles of buoyancy Such a chamber is called.

Design of Masonry Structures Multiple Choice Questions and Answers preparation for gate exams - Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1.       If the ratio of centre to centre spacing of intersecting walls to actual thickness of
intersecting wall is more th n 20, then the stiffening coefficient for wall proper will be
2.       Maximum slenderness ratio of load bearing walls for a dwelling having more than 2 storeys
3.       Where a structural component or a system is providing lateral support to five or more walls or columns, the lateral load to be resisted may be taken as
4.     The effective height of free standing nonload bearing wall and column respectively will be
5.     If H is the height of wall between centres of supports, then the effective height of
wall where concrete floors have a bearing on wall irrespective of the direction of span will be
6.       The thickness of each leaf of a cavity wall shall not be less than
7.       If the horizontal cross-sectional area of a wall is 1200 cm2, then the basic stress shall be multiplied by a reduction factor equal to
8.       A free standing brick wall 20 cm thick is subjected to a wind pressure of 75kg/m2. The maximum height of wall from stability consideration is
9.     The bending stress in a wall or column subjected to effective vertical load need
not be considered, if the eccentricity ratio is
10.     Assertion A : For eccentricity ratio exceeding 1/6, effective thickness of masonry will get reduced.
         Reason R     :   For  eccentricity  ratio exceeding 1/6, there will be tension on one side of the member. Select your answer according to the codes give below:
11.    If the eccentricity ratio is more than 1/24, then increase in the permissible stress in
the design of wall subjected to eccentric loading as per code is
12.    For designing masonry components of a structure, seismic forces provision in the
design calculation is not necessary for buildings constructed in
13.     The mode of failure of a very short masonry member having h/t ratio of less than 4 is by
14.     Assertion A : From consideration of structural soundness and economy of design, most codes control the maximum slenderness ratio of masonry walls and columns.
Reason R : By controlling the maximum slenderness ratio, failure is by excessive stress and not by buckling. Select your answer according to codes given below:
15.     The timber floor not spanning on the masonry wall but properly anchored to the wall gives
16.    Full restraint is provided by
17.    Minimum thickness of stiffening wall for 1 to 3 storeys shall not be less than
18.     Which of the following will give higher ratio of brickwork strength to mortar strength ?
19.    Assertion A : Lime based mortars give higher ratio of brickwork strength to mortar strength as compared to non-lime mortar.
Reason R : Lime based mortars have lower bond strength as compared to non-lime mortars.
Select your answer according to the codes given below:
20.    For masonry work with solid bricks, consistency of mortar should be
21.    Water retentivity for brick masonry should not be less than
22.    Minimum compressive strength in N/mm2 for H1 type mortar used for masonry is
23.    Rich cement mortars are more liable to cracking as compared to lean mortars because rich mortars have
24.    Cement mortars richer than 1 : 3 are not used in masonry because
25.    For earthquake resistant masonry buildings, the vertical distance between
openings one above the other in a load bearing wall shall not be less than
26.    For earthquake resistant masonry buildings, where seismic coefficient is less than 0.08, the horizontal distance between two openings shall not be less than
27.     Consider the following statements regarding bands to be provided for strengthening masonry work in masonry buildings constructed in zone III, IV and V.
28.    In a cavity wall, both leaves of which are load bearing, the effective thickness is taken as
29.    Assertion A : Limiting value of slenderness ratio for a column is less than that of a wall.
Reason R : A column can buckle around either of the two horizontal axes while a wall can buckle around only one axis. Select your answer according to the codes given below:
30.    Consider the following statements regarding provision of chases in masonry,
31.    Consider the following statements :
The use of relatively weak mortar
32.    In the case of panel wall subjected to horizontal loads at right angles to the plane of the wall, with the mortar not leaner than Ml type, tensile stress in bending in the vertical direction may be allowed to the extent of
33.    For strengthening a 50 m long and 5 m high straight compound wall built in brick work, which one of the following would be most suitable?
34.    Consider the following statements : Sand in mortar is needed for
35.    Consider the following statements:
A  high lime content in a composite cement-lime mortar results in
36.    The mortars used for masonry construction are classified based on strength in IS 2250 and IS 1905 according to their designations L1,L2, H1, H2, M, M2.
The correct sequence of increasing order of their strengths is
37.    Direct load carrying capacity of a brick masonry wall standing freely as against when it supports RC slab will be
38.     A 200 mm thick wall made of modular bricks is 5 m long between cross walls and 3.8 m clear height between RCC slabs at top and bottom. The slenderness ratio of the wall is
39.     A 200 mm thick brick masonry wall made of modular bricks carries an axial load of 30 kN/m from wall above and an eccentric load of 20 kN/m from RCC floor acting at a distance of 47.5 mm from the centre line of the wall. The resultant eccentricity ratio is
40.     The basic stress in masonry units having height to  width  ratio  of  1.5   may  be increased by a factor of
41.     Assertion A : For identical strength, a composite cement-lime mortar is preferred over cement mortar.
Reason R : Composite cement-lime mortar has higher drying shrinkage than cement mortar.
Select your answer based on the codes given below. Codes:
42.     Consider the following statements:
43.     For masonry built in 1:1:6 cement-lime-sand mix mortar or equivalent, the horizontal shear stress permissible on the area of a mortar bed joint is

Airport Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers preparation for gate exams - Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1.      As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should be
2.      As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are
3.    As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of
4.    Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport
capacity: Reason R :Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
5.      An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
6.    The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon
7.    The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require
8.    The minimum width of clearway is
9.     If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25° C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46° C, the airport reference temperature is
10.     Consider the following statements regarding iCAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length
11.     The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be.
12.     The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be
13.     As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be
14.    Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:
15.     The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be
16.     As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed
17.    Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than
18.    For determining the basic runway.length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is
19.     According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are
20.    Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of
21.    The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are
22.     In Intrumental landing system, the middle markers are located
23.     The size of landing area for multiengined helicopters operating under 1FR conditions is
24.     The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and take off area should be
25.     The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be
26.     Assertion  A  :  Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions.
Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor
visibility conditions.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
27.     Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R:The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway. Select   your   answer   based   on   coding system given below
28.     For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is
29.    As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the number of movements allowed are
30.    Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements ?
31.    The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the
32.    Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft ?
33.     The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be
34.     The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is
35.     In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more than
36.    Maximum gross take-off weight of an aircraft is
37.    Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of
38.    Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing?
39.    In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well-separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be
40.    Castor angle is defined as the angle
41.     The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be

Concrete Technology and Design of Concrete Structures Multiple Choice Questions and Answers preparation for gate exams - Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1.     To determine the modulus of rupture, the size of test specimen used is
2.     The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends to rise to the surface while placing and compacting, is called
3.      Select the incorrect statement
4.      The property of the ingredients to separate from each other while placing the concrete is called
5.      Workability of concrete is directly proportional to
6.      Workability of concrete is inversely pro¬portional to
7.      Approximate value of shrinkage strain in concrete, is
8.      Air entrainment in the concrete increases
9.      The relation between modulus of rupture fcr, splitting strength fcs and direct tensile strength fcl is given by
10.    The approximate value of the ratio between direct tensile strength and flexural strength is
11.    Strength of concrete increases with
12.    The relation between modulus of rupturefcr and characteristic strength of concrete fck is given by
13.     The compressive strength of 100 mm cube as compared to 150 mm cube is always
14.     According to IS : 456 -1978, the modulus of elasticity of concrete Ec (in N/mm2) can be taken as
15.     Increase in the moisture content in con-crete
16.    As compared to ordinary portland cement, use of pozzuolanic cement
17.    Admixtures which cause early setting, and hardening of concrete are called
18.    The most commonly used admixture which prolongs the setting and hardening time is
19.    The percentage of voids in cement is approximately
20.    The strength of concrete after one year as compared to 28 days strength is about
21.    As compared to ordinary portland cement, high alumina cement has
22.    Modulus of rupture of concrete is a measure of
23.    In order to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate is
24.    The effect of adding calcium chloride in concrete is
25.    Bulking of sand is maximum if moisture content is about
26.    Finer grinding of cement
27.    Poisson's ratio for concrete
28.    1% of voids in a concrete mix would reduce its strength by about
29.     The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is in the range of
30.     The factor of safety for
31.     Examine the following statements :
32.    For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shear stress diagram is
33.    Diagonal tension in a beam
34.     If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be increased most economi-cally by
35.     If nominal shear stress tv exceeds the design shear strength of concrete xc, the nominal shear reinforcement as per IS : 456-1978 shall be provided for carrying a shear stress equal to
36.    If the depth of actual neutral axis in a beam is more than the depth of critical neutral axis, then the beam is called
37.    If the depth of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular section is represented by kd in working stress design, then the value of k for balanced section
38.     If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 140 N/mm2, then the depth of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular balanced section will be
39.    Modulus of elasticity of steel as per IS : 456-1978 shall be taken as
40.    Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete as per IS:456-1978 is
41.    For concreting of heavily reinforced sections without vibration, the workability of concrete expressed as compacting factor should be
42.    Maximum quantity of water needed per 50 kg of cement for M 15 grade of concrete is
43.    In case of hand mixing of concrete, the extra cement to be added is
44.    For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is generally removed after
45.    The individual variation between test strength of sample should not be more than
46.    One of the criteria for the effecvve width of flange of T-beam is bf =—+ bw +6Df 6
In above formula, l0 signifies
47.    For a cantilever of effective depth of 0.5m, the maximum span to satisfy vertical deflection limit is
48.    For a simply supported beam of span 15m, the minimum effective depth to satisfy the vertical deflection limits should be
49.    For a continuous slab of 3 m x 3.5 m size, the minimum overall depth of slab to satisfy vertical deflection limits is
50.    According to IS : 456-1978, the fiexural strength of concrete is
51.    According to IS : 456-1978, the cblumn or the strut is the member whose effective length is greater than
52.    According to IS : 456- 1978, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is
53.    Lap length in compression shall not be less than
54.    The minimum cover in a slab should neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less than
55.    For a longitudinal reinforcing bar in a column, the minimum cover shall neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less than
56.    The ratio of the diameter of reinforcing bars and the slab thickness is
57.    According to IS: 456-1978, the maximum reinforcement in a column is
58.    The percentage of reinforcement in case of slabs, when high strength deformed bars are used is not less than
59.    Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
60.    Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
61.     Minimum pitch of transverse reinforce¬ment in a column is
62.     Maximum distance between expansion joints in structures as per IS : 456 - 1978 is
63.    A continuous beam is deemed to be a deep beam when the ratio of effective span to
overall depth (1/D) is less than
64.    Critical section for shear in case of flat slabs is at a distance of
65.    Minimum thickness of load bearing RCC wall should be
66.    If the storey height is equal to length of RCC wall, the percentage increase in strength is
67.    In reinforced concrete footing on soil, the minimum thickness at edge should not be less than
68.    The slab is designed as one way if the ratio of long span to short span is
69.    Ratio of permissible stress in direct compression and bending compression is
70.    A higher modular ratio shows
71.    The average permissible stress in bond for plain bars in tension is
74.    In working stress design, permissible bond stress in the case of deformed bars is more than that in plain bars by
75.    The main reason for providing number of reinforcing bars at a support in a simply supported beam is to resist in that zone
76.    Half of the main steel in a simply supported slab is bent up near the support at a
distance of x from the centre of slab bearing where x is equal to
77.    When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by
78.     If the size of panel in a flat slab is 6m x 6m, then as per Indian Standard Code, the widths of column strip and middle strip are
79.     For a slab supported on its four edges with corners held down and loaded uniformly, the Marcus correction factor to the moments obtained by Grashoff Rankine's theory
80.     The permissible diagonal tensile stress in reinforced brick work is
81.    The limits of percentage p of the longitudinal reinforce-ment in a column is given by
82.    The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars in a column is
83.    The minimum cover to the ties or spirals should not be less than
84.    The load carrying capacity of a helically reinforced column as compared to that of a tied column is about
86.     The diameter of ties in a column should be
87.    Due to circumferential action of the spiral in a spirally reinforced column
88.    Maximum percentage reinforcement in case of slabs is limited to
89.    Which of the following R.C. retaining walls is suitable for heights beyond 6m?
90.    For the design of retaining walls, the minimum factor of safety against overturning is taken as
91.    In counterfort type retaining walls
92.    A T-shaped retaining wall mainly conssits of
93.    In T-shaped R C. retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem is provided on
94.    The main reinforcement in the toe of a T- shaped R C. retaining wall is provided on
95.    The temperature reinforcement in the vertical slab of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is
96.    The main reinforcement in the heel of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is provided on
97.    In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement is provided on the
98.    In counterfort retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem at support is
99.    In the design of a front counterfort in a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement is provided on
100.    In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement in the stem at mid span is provided on
101.    The  depth  of footing  for  an isolated column is governed by
102.    If the foundations of all the columns of a structure are designed on the total live and dead load basis, then

Design of Steel Structures Multiple Choice Questions and Answers preparation for gate exams - Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1.      The heaviest I-section for same depth is
2.    Bending compressive and tensile stresses respectively are calculated based on
3.    If the thickness of thinnest outside plate is 10 mm, then the maximum pitch of rivets in tension will be taken as
4.    In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined for complete bearing on the base plate, then the axial load is assumed to be transferred to base plate
5.    When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the rivets are subjected to
6.    When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the most heavily loaded rivet will be the one which
7.    Which of the following types of riveted joint is free from bending stresses ?
8.    The difference between gross diameter and nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25 mm diameter is
9.    As compared to field rivets, the shop rivets are
10.    If the thickness of plate to be connected by a rivet is 16 mm, then suitable size of rivet as per Unwin's formula will be
11.    By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of riveted joint can be avoided ?
12.    Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be less than
13.    Efficiency of a riveted joint, having the minimum pitch as per IS : 800, is
14.    Select the correct statement
15.    Bolts are most suitable to carry
16.    Diameter of a bolt hole is usually taken as
17.    When the bolts are subjected to reversal of stresses, the most suitable type of bolt is
18.    In the cross-section of a weld, throat is the
19.    The effective length of a fillet weld should not be less than
20.    For a standard 45° fillet, the ratio of size of fillet to throat thickness is
21.    A butt weld is specified by
22.    The actual thickness of butt weld as compared to the thickness of plate is usually
23.    According to IS Specifications, the maximum pitch of rivets in compression is
24.    A circular column section is generally not used in actual practice because
25.    The slenderness ratio of a column supported throughout its length by a masonry wall is
26.    According to IS Specifications, the effective length of a column effectively held in position at both ends and
restrained in direction at one end is taken as
27.     The effective length of a battened strut effectively held in position at both ends but not restrained in direction is taken as
28.    The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and superimposed load is
29.    The maximum slenderness ratio of a steel column, the design of which is governed by wind or seismic forces is
30.    According to IS:800, in the Merchant Rankine formula the value of imperfection index (n) is
31.    The best arrangement to provide unified behaviour in built up steel columns is by
32.    If the 20 mm rivets are used in lacing bars, then the minimum width of lacing bar should be
33.    The use of tie plates in laced columns is
34.    Lacing bars in a steel column should be designed to resist
35.    Angle of inclination of the lacing bar with the longitudinal axis of the column should preferably be between
36.    Battening is preferable when the
37.    The effective length of a battened column is increased by
38.    The overlap of batten plates with the main members in welded connections should be more than
39.    The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should not exceed
40.    Economical depth of a plate girder corresponds to
41.    Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is prevented by using
42.    Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against
43.    Minimum thickness of web in a plate girder, when the plate is accessible and also exposed to weather, is
44.    The web crippling due to excessive bearing stress can be avoided by
45.     As per IS : 800, for compression flange, the outstand of flange plates should not exceed
46.    Intermediate vertical stiffeners in a plate girder need be provided if the depth of web exceeds
47.    Bearing stiffener in a plate girder is used to
48.    The forces acting on the web splice of a plate girder are
49.    Gantry girders are designed to resist
50.    Minimum spacing of vertical stiffeners is limited to
51.    Bearing stiffeners are provided at
52.    Rivets connecting flange angles to cover plates in a plate girder are subjected to
53.    The maximum spacing of vertical stiffeners is
54.    The range of economical spacing of trusses varies from
55.    The maximum permissible span of asbestos cement sheets is
56.    Normally, the angle of roof truss with
asbestos sheets should not be less than
57.    To minimise the total cost of a roof truss, the ratio of the cost of truss to the cost of purlins shall be
58.    Generally the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid
59.    For the buildings having a low permeability, the internal wind pressure acting normal to the wall and roof surfaces is taken as
60.    The relation between intensity of wind pressure p and velocity of wind V is taken as
61.     The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided to roof, is taken as
62.     The internal pressure coefficient on walls for buildings with large permeability is taken as
63.    The basic wind speed is specified at a height 'h' above mean ground level in an open terrain. The value of'h' is
64.    The risk coefficient k, depends on
65.     The external wind pressure acting on a roof depends on
66.    Area of openings for buildings of large permeability is more than
67.    As per IS : 875, for the purposes of specifying basic wind velocity, the country has been divided into
68.    The number of seismic zones in which the country has been divided are
69.    Minimum pitch provided in riveted steel tanks is
70.     The allowable tensile stress in structural mild steel plates for steel tank is assumed as
71.     Steel tanks are mainly designed for
72.     Which of the following sections should preferably be used at places where torsion occurs ?
73.     The capacity of the smallest pressed steel tank is
74.     The bracing between two columns of a steel tank will be designed to resist
75.    The minimum thickness of plates in a steel stack should be
76.    Maximum pitch of rivets, used in steel stacks, is limited to
77.    The diameter of base of conical flare of a steel stack is
78.    Hudson's formula gives the dead weight of a truss bridge as a function of
79.     If the loaded length of span in metres of a railway steel bridge carrying a single track is 6 m, then impact factor is taken as
80.    If the floor is supported at or near the bottom but top chords of a bridge are not braced, then the bridge is called
81.    The centrifugal force due to curvature of track is assumed to act on the bridge at a height of
82.    The effect of racking forces is considered in the design of
83.    The portal bracing in a truss bridge is used to
84.    The sway bracing is designed to transfer
85.    Study the following statements.
86.     The bracing provided in the plane of end posts is called
87.     compression force in two end posts The pin of a rocker bearing in a bridge is designed for
88.    The least dimension in case of a circular column of diameter D is taken as
89.    In case of timber structures, the form factor for solid circular cross-section is taken as
90.    In case of timber structures, the simple bending formula M = fz may be applied for
91.    The elastic strain for steel is about
92.    The mechanism method and the statical method give
93.    The   moment-curvature relation at a plastic hinge is
94.    Shape factor is a property which depends
95.    The statical method of plastic analysis satisfies
96.    The mechanism method of plastic analysis satisfies
97.    Load factor is
98.    The ratio of plastic section modulus to elastic section modulus
99.    Other conditions being same, the load factor in indeterminate structures is
100.    Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied both in elastic and plastic analysis ?
101.    In the virtual work method, the virtual quantity is
102.    As per IS:800, in the plastic design, which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Working Loads Load factor
103.    The shape factor of an isosceles triangle for bending about the axis parallel to the base is:
104.    In case of plastic design, the calculated maximum shear capacity of a beam as per IS:800 shall be
105.    The minimum thickness of a steel plate, which is directly exposed to weather and is not accessible for cleaning and repainting, should be:
106.    The moment of inertia of the pair of vertical stiffeners about the center line of the web should not be less than.

Structural Analysis Multiple Choice Questions and Answers preparation for gate exams - Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1.    The number of independent equations to be satisfied for static equilibrium of a plane structure is
2.    If there are m unknown member forces, r unknown reaction components and j number of joints, then the degree of static indeterminacy of a pin-jointed plane frame is given by
3.    Number of unknown internal forces in each member of a rigid jointed plane frame is
4.    Degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid-jointed plane frame having 15 members, 3 reaction components and 14 joints is
5.    Degree of kinematic indeterminacy of a pin-jointed plane frame is given by
6.    Independent displacement components at each joint of a rigid-jointed plane frame are
7.    If in a pin-jointed plane frame (m + r) > 2j, then the frame is
8.    A pin-jointed plane frame is unstable if
9.    A rigid-jointed plane frame is stable and statically determinate if
10.  The number of independent equations to be satisfied for static equilibrium in a space structure is
11.    The degree of static indeterminacy of a pin-jointed space frame is given by
12.    The degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid-jointed space frame is
13.    The degree of kinematic indeterminacy of a pin-jointed space frame is
14.    The number of independent displacement components at each joint of a rigid-jointed space frame is
15.    If in a rigid-jointed space frame, (6m + r) < 6j, then the frame is
16.   The principle of virtual work can be applied to elastic system by considering the virtual work of
17.    Castigliano's first theorem is applicable
18.    Principle of superposition is applicable when
19.    In moment distribution method, the sum of distribution factors of all the members meeting at any joint is always
20.    The carryover factor in a prismatic member whose far end is fixed is
21.    In column analogy method, the area of an analogous column for a fixed beam of span L and flexural rigidity El is taken as
22.    The degree of static indeterminacy up to which column analogy method can be used is
23.    The deflection at any point of a perfect frame can be obtained by applying a unit load at the joint in
24.    In the slope deflection equations, the deformations are considered to be caused by
25.    The three moments equation is applicable only when
26.    While using three moments equation, a fixed end of a continuous beam is replaced by an additional span of
27.    The Castigliano's second theorem can be used to compute deflections
28.    Bending moment at any section in a conjugate beam gives in the actual beam
29.    For a two-hinged arch, if one of the supports settles down vertically, then the horizontal thrust
30.    For a symmetrical two hinged parabolic arch, if one of the supports settles horizontally, then the horizontal thrust
31.    A single rolling load of 8 kN rolls along a girder of 15 m span. The absolute maximum bending moment will be
32.    The maximum bending moment due to a train of wheel loads on a simply supported girder
33.    When a uniformly distributed load, longer than the span of the girder, moves from left to right, then the maximum bending moment at mid section of span occurs when the uniformly distributed load occupies
34.    When a uniformly distributed load, shorter than the span of the girder, moves from left to right, then the conditions for maximum bending moment at a section is that
35.    When a series of wheel loads crosses a simply supported girder, the maximum bending moment under any given wheel load occurs when
36.    Which of the following is not the displacement method ?
37.    Study the following statements.
38.    Select the correct statement.
39.    To generate the j th column of the flexibility matrix
40.    For stable structures, one of the important properties of flexibility and stiffness matrices is that the elements on the main diagonal
41.    Effects of shear force and axial force on plastic moment capacity of a structure are respectively to
42.    Which of the following methods of structural analysis is a force method ?
43.    Which of the following methods of structural analysis is a displacement method ?
44.    In the displacement method of structural analysis, the basic unknowns are
45.    The fixed support in a real beam becomes in the conjugate beam a
46.    The width of the analogous column in the method of column analogy is
47.    A simply supported beam deflects by 5 mm when it is subjected to a concentrated load of 10 kN at its centre. What will be deflection in a 1/10 model of the beam if the model is subjected to a 1 kN load at its centre ?
48.    The deformation of a spring produced by a unit load is called
49.    For a single point load W moving on a symmetrical three hinged parabolic arch of span L, the maximum sagging moment occurs at a distance x from ends. The value of x is
50.   Muller Breslau's principle for obtaining influence lines is applicable to
51.   Consider the following statements:Sinking of an intermediate support of a continuous beam
52.    A load 'W is moving from left to right support on a simply supported beam of span T. The maximum bending moment at 0.4 1 from the left support is
53.  When a load crosses a through type Pratt truss in the direction left to right, the nature of force in any diagonal member in the left half of the span would

Applied Mechanics and Graphic Statics Multiple Choice Questions and Answers preparation for gate exams - Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1.      A force P of 50 N and another force Q of unknown magnitude act at 90° to each other. They are balanced by a force of 130 N. The magnitude of Q is
2.      If the resultant of two forces has the same magnitude as either of the force, then the angle between the two forces is
3.      A rod AB carries three loads of 30 N, 70 N and 100 N at distances of 20 mm, 90 mm and 150 mm respectively from A. Neglecting the weight of the rod, the point at which the rod will balance is
4.      The angles between two forces to make their resultant a minimum and a maximum respectively are
5.      When two forces, each equal to P, act at 90° to each other, then the resultant will be
6.      The resultant of two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant is perpendicular to P. Then,
7.    A cube on a smooth horizontal surface
8.    The following is in unstable equilibrium
9. A block in the shape of a parallelopiped of sides lm x 2m x 3m lies on the surface. Which of the faces gives maximum stable block ?
10.    A uniform pyramid and a uniform prism of same height lie with their base on the surface. Which is more stable ?
11.    Minimum potential energy of a system will be in the position of
12.    A rigid body is in a stable equilibrium if the application of any force
13.    Which of the following represents the state of neutral equilibrium ?
14.     Two circular discs of same weight and thickness are made from metals having different densities. Which disc will have the larger rotational inertia about its central axis ?
15.     The total kinetic energy of a hoop of mass 2 kg and radius 4 m sliding with linear velocity 8 m/sec and angular velocity 5 radian/sec is
16.     A symmetrical body is rotating about its axis of symmetry, its moment of inertia about the axis of rotation being 2 kg -m2 and its rate of rotation 2 revolutions/see. The angular momentum of the body in kg-m2/sec is
17.     The angular speed of a car while taking a circular turn of radius 100m at 36 km/hour, is
18.     The torque produced by a force depends on
19.     The ratio of the speed of a rolling cylinder to the speed of sliding cylinder is
20.    A sphere and a cylinder having the same mass and radii start from rest and roll down the same inclined plane. Which body gets to the bottom first ?
21.     A hoop of radius 3 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so that at its center of mass has a speed of 200 mm/sec, . The work required to stop the hoop is
22.    A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. The acceleration of center of mass of rolling cylinder is
23.    A solid sphere of mass M and radius R rolls down a plane inclined at 0 with the horizontal. The acceleration of sphere is
24.     A cylinder will slip on an inclined plane of inclination 0 if the coefficient of static friction between plane and cylinder is
25.     Rate of change of angular momentum is equal to
26.     If the angular distance, 0 = 2t3 - 3t2, the angular acceleration at t = 1 sec. is
27.     A circular disc rotates at n rpm. The angular velocity of a circular ring of same mass and radius as the disc and to have the same angular momentum is
28.    A particle moves in a straight line and its position is defined by the equation x = 6 t2 - t3 where t is expressed in seconds and x in meters. The maximum velocity during the motion is
29.    A flywheel of moment of inertia 20 kg-m" is acted upon by a tangential force of 5 N at 2 m from its axis, for 3 seconds. The increase in angular velocity in radian persecond is
30.     A disc of mass 4 kg, radius 0.5m and moment of inertia 3 kg-m2 rolls on a horizontal surface so that its center moves with speed 5 m/see. Kinetic energy of the disc is
31.     When a circular wheel rolls on a straight track, then the shape of body centrode and space centrode respectively are
32.     Select the correct statement
33.    At the instantaneous center, the velocity of the moving lamina at any instant is
34.    Instantaneous center is at infinity when the angular velocity is
35.     A 2 m long ladder rests against a wall and makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal floor. Where will be the instantaneous center of rotation when the ladder starts slipping ?
36.     For a given velocity of a projectile, the range is maximum when the angle of projection is
37.     The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of a projectile are equal to
38.     The maximum value of the horizontal range for a projectile projected with a velocity of 98 m/sec is
39.     A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a vertical velocity of 49 m/sec. It returns to the ground in
40.    A projectile has maximum range of 40 m on a horizontal plane. If angle of projection is a and the time of flight is 1 second, then sin a must be about
41.     If the direction of projection bisects the angle between the vertical and the inclined plane, then the range of projectile on the inclined plane is
42.     If a projectile is fired with an initial velocity of 10 m/sec at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, its horizontal and vertical velocity at the highest point of trajectory are
43.     The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of a projectile are equal to
44.    A stone is thrown up a slope of inclination 60° to the horizontal. At what angle to the slope must the stone be thrown so as to land as far as possible from the point of projection ?
45.    In a simple harmonic motion, the position of equilibrium is always
46.    If A is the amplitude of particle executing simple harmonic motion, then the total energy E of the particle is
47.    The time period of a simple pendulum depends on
48.    A particle of mass 2 kg executes simple harmonic motion of frequency 6/71 Hz and amplitude 0.25 m. Its maximum kinetic energy is
50.    The maximum displacement of a particle executing S.H.M. corresponds to
51.    It is observed that in a certain sinusoidal oscillation, the amplitude is linearly dependent on the frequency f. If the maximum velocity during the oscillation is V, then V must be proportional to
52.    A simple pendulum of length 1 has an energy E when its amplitude is A. If its amplitude is increased to 2 A, the energy becomes
53.    If the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator of amplitude A are both equal to half the total energy, then the displacement is equal to
54.    The ratio of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator, at a displacement equal to half its amplitude is given by
55.     A simple pendulum of length / has an energy E, when its amplitude is A. If the length of pendulum is doubled, the energy will be
56.    Time period and length of a seconds pendulum respectively are
57.    One end of an elastic string of natural length / and modulus X is kept fixed while to the other end is attached a particle of mass m which is hanging freely under gravity. The particle is pulled down vertically through a distance x, held at rest and then released.
The motion is
58.    A particle is executing simple harmonic motion in a line 1.0 m long. If the time of one complete vibration is 1 sec, then the maximum velocity of the particle is
59. The potential energy of a particle falling through a straight shaft drilled through the earth (assumed homogenous and spherical) is proportional to
60.    Joule is the unit of
61.    One Newton is equivalent to
62.    A quantity whose dimensions are M2L2 T3 could be the product of
63.    The dimensions of Gravitational Universal constant 'G' are
64.    If y  is  force and x  is  velocity,  then dimensions of —=r are dx2
65.    One Joule is equivalent to
66.    The dimensions of centrifugal force are
67.    A quantity measured in the C.G.S system of units has dimensions M"2L3 T3/2. What numerical factor would be required to convert the quantity to SI units ?
68.    The unit of rotational inertia of a body in C.G.S system is
69.    The ratio of unit of force in gravitational system to that in absolute system is
70.    In SI units, the units of force and energy are respectively
71.    The dimensions of power are.
72.    Impulse can be obtained from a
73.    One Newton is equivalent to
74.    Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
75.    A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in equilibrium if
76.    Coefficient of friction depends on
77.     A rope is wrapped twice around a rough pole with a coefficient of friction 'A . It is subjected to a force Fj at one end and a gradually increasing force F2 is applied at the other end till the rope just starts slip-ping. At this instant the ratio of F2 to Fi is
78.     A ladder of weight 'w' rests against a smooth vertical wall, and rests on rough horizontal ground, the coefficient of friction between the ladder and the ground being 1/4. The maximum angle of incli¬nation of the ladder to the vertical, if a man of weight 'w' is to walk to the top of it safely, is tan'1 x, where x is
79.     If a body is lying on a plane whose in-clination with the horizontal is less than the angle of friction, then
80.     Intrinisic equation of catenary is given by
81.     The shape of a suspended cable for a uniformly distributed load over it is
82.    Cartesian form of the equation of catenary is
83.    A cable loaded with 10 kN/m of span is stretched between supports in the same horizontal line 100 m apart. If the central dip is 10 m, then the maximum and minimum pull in the cable respectively are
84.    Minimum pull in a suspended cable with supports at two ends is equal to
85.    A light rope is loaded with many equal weights at equal horizontal intervals. The points of suspension on the rope lie on a
86.    The maximum pull in a cable, carrying a uniformly distributed load and supported at two ends which are at the same level, is at
87.    A ball moving on a smooth horizontal table hits a rough vertical wall, the coefficient of restitution between ball and wall being 1/3. The ball rebounds at the same angle. The fraction of its kinetic energy lost is
88.    A particle is dropped from a height of 3 m on a horizontal floor, which has a coefficient of restitution with the ball of 1/2. The height to which the ball will rebound after striking the floor is
89.    A ball is dropped from a height of 16 m on a horizontal floor. If it rebounds to a height of 9 m after striking the floor, the coefficient of restitution between ball and floor is
90.    Two balls of masses 3 kg and 6 kg are moving with velocities of 4 m/sec and 1 m/sec respectively, towards each other along the line of their centres. After impact the 3 kg ball comes to rest. This can happen only if the coefficient of restitution between the balls is
91.    When a body slides down an inclined surface, the acceleration of the body is given by
92.    A body is dropped from a height of 100 m and at the same time another body is projected vertically upward with a velocity of 10 m/sec. The two particles will
93.    A shell travelling with a horizontal velocity of 100 m/sec explodes and splits into two parts, one of mass 10 kg and the other of 15 kg. The 15 kg mass drops vertically downward with initial velocity of 100 m/sec and the 10 kg mass begins to travel at an angle to the horizontal of tan"1 x, where x is
94. A car goes round a curve of radius 100 m at 25 m/sec. The angle to the horizontal at which the road must be banked to prevent sideways friction on the car wheels is tan"1 x, where x is (Assume g = 10 m/sec2)
95. A shell of mass 100 kg travelling with a velocity of 10 m/sec breaks into two equal pieces during an explosion which provides an extra kinetic energy of 20000 Joules. If the pieces continue to move in the same
direction as before, then the speed of the faster one must be
96.    If a flywheel increases its speed from 10 rpm to 20 rpm in 10 seconds, then its angular acceleration is
97.    Two objects moving with uniform speeds are 5 m apart after 1 second when they move towards each other and are 1 m apart when they move in the same direction.
The speeds of the objects are
98.    The angular speed of a car taking a circular turn of radius 100 m at 36 km/hr will be
99.    A bullet weighing 10 gm moves with a velocity of lkm/sec. Its kinetic energy is
100.    A stone was thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 50 m/sec. After 5 seconds another stone was thrown vertically upwards from the same place. If both the stones strike the ground at the same time, then the velocity with which the second stone was thrown should be (Assume g = 10 m/sec2)

Strength of Materials Multiple Choice Questions and Answers preparation for gate exams - Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1.    Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of
2.    If the Young's modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its modulus of rigidity, then the Poisson's ratio of the material is
3.    Limit of proportionality depends upon
4.    For an isotropic, homogeneous and elastic material obeying Hooke's law, number of independent elastic constants is
5.    In a thin cylindrical shell, the ratio of longitudinal stress to hoop stress is
6.    If all the dimensions of a prismatic bar are doubled, then the maximum stress produced in it under its own weight will
7.    The relationship between Young's, modulus of elasticity E, bulk modulus K and Poisson's ratio u is given by
8.    Limiting values of Poisson's ratio are
9.    The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is equal to
10.    If a material has identical properties in all directions, it is said to be
11.    Two bars of different materials are of the same size and are subjected to same tensile forces. If the bars have unit elongations in the ratio of 4 : 7, then the ratio of moduli of elasticity of the two materials is
12.    A prismatic bar of volume V is subjected to a tensile force in longitudinal direction.
        If Poisson's ratio of the material is u and longitudinal strain is e, then the final volume of the bar becomes
13.    If a composite bar of steel and copper is heated, then the copper bar will be under
14.    Effective length of a weld is equal to
15.    Size of a right angled fillet weld is given by
16.    The effective length of a fillet weld designed to transmit axial load shall not be less than
17.    Size of fillet weld with unequal legs is equal to
18.    Weakest section in a fillet weld is
19.    Effective throat thickness of a fillet weld is
20.     According to Unwin's formula, the dia¬meter of rivet in mm to suit the t mm thickness of plate is given by
21.     A flat carrying a pull of 69C kN is con-nected to a gusset plate using rivets. If the pulls required to shear the rivet, to crush the rivet and to tear the plate per pitch length are 68.5 kN, 46 kN and 69 kN respectively, then the number of rivets required is
22.     If the rivet value is 16.8 kN and force in the member is 16.3 kN, then the number of rivets required for the connection of the member to a gusset plate is
23.     At a point in a strained body carrying two unequal unlike principal stresses pi and p2 (Pi > P2X the maximum shear stress is given by
24.     If a point in a strained material is subjected to equal normal and tangential stresses, then the angle of obliquity is
25.     If a prismatic member with area of cross-section A is subjected to a tensile load P, then the maximum shear stress and its inclination with the direction of load respectively are
26.     The sum of normal stresses is
27.     The radius of Mohr's circle for two equal unlike principal stresses of magnitude p is
28.     Shear stress on principal planes is
29.     The state of pure shear stress is produced by
30.     According to Rankine's hypothesis, the criterion of failure of a brittle material is
31.     Maximum bending moment in a beam occurs where
32.     Rate of change of bending moment is equal to
33.    The diagram showing the variation of axial load along the span is called
34.    The difference in ordinate of the shear curve between any two sections is equal to the area under
35.    The variation of the bending moment in the portion of a beam carrying linearly varying load is
36.    The maximum bending moment due to a moving load on a fixed ended beam occurs
37.    A cantilever beam AB of length 1 carries a concentrated load W at its midspan C. If the free end B is supported on a rigid prop, then there is a point of contraflow
38.    A prismatic beam fixed at both ends carries a uniformly distributed load. The ratio of bending moment at the supports to the bending moment at mid-span is
39.    A beam of overall length 1 with equal overhangs on both sides carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. To have numerically equal bending moments at centre of the beam and at supports, the distance between the supports should be
40.    A prismatic beam of length 1 and fixed at both ends carries a uniformly distributed load. The distance of points of contraflexure from either end is
41.    A simply supported beam of length 1 carries a load varying uniformly from zero at left end to maximum at right end. The maximum bending moment occurs at a distance of
42.    A portion of a beam between two sections is said to be in pure bending when there is
43.    The ratio of width to depth of a strongest beam that can be cut out of a cylindrical log of wood is
44.    Of the several prismatic beams of equal lengths, the strongest in flexure is the one having maximum
45.    Of the two prismatic beams of same material, length and flexural strength, one is circular and other is square in cross-section. The ratio of weights of circular and square beams is
46.    A flitched beam consists of a wooden joist 150 mm wide and 300 mm deep strengthened by steel plates 10 mm thick and 300 mm deep one on either side of the joist. If modulus of elasticity of steel is 20 times that of wood, then the width of equivalent wooden section will be
47.    A beam of rectangular cross-section is 100 mm wide and 200 mm deep. If the section is subjected to a shear force of 20 kN, then the maximum shear stress in the section is
48.     A beam of square cross-section with side 100 mm  is placed with  one diagonal vertical. If the shear force acting on the section is 10 kN, the maximum shear stress is
49.    A prismatic bar when subjected to pure bending assumes the shape of
50.    A beam of triangular cross section is placed with its base horizontal. The maximum shear stress    intensity in the section will be
51.    A beam of uniform strength has at every cross-section same
52.    For no torsion, the plane of bending should
53.    Two beams, one of circular cross-section and other of square cross-section, have equal areas of cross-section. If subjected to bending
54.    The portion, which should be removed from top and bottom of a circular cross section of diameter d in order to obtain maximum section modulus, is
55.    A beam of overall length / rests on two simple supports with equal overhangs on both sides. Two equal loads act at the free ends. If the deflection at the center of the beam is the same as at either end, then the length of either overhang is
56.    A beam ABC rests on simple supports at A and B with BC as an overhang. D is center of span AB. If in the first case a concentrated load P acts at C while in the second case load P acts at D, then the
57.    If the deflection at the free end of a uniformly loaded cantilever beam is 15mm and the slope of the deflection curve at the free end is 0.02 radian, then the length of the beam is
58.     If the deflection at the free end of a uniformly loaded cantilever beam of length 1 m is equal to 7.5 mm, then the slope at the free end is
59.     A cantilever beam carries a uniformly distributed load from fixed end to the centre of the beam in the first case and a uniformly distributed load of same inten¬sity from centre of the beam to the free end in the second case. The ratio of deflections in the two cases is
60.     If the length of a simply supported beam carrying a concentrated load at the centre is doubled, the defection at the centre will become
61.    A simply supported beam with rectangular cross-section is subjected to a central concentrated load. If the width and depth of the beam are doubled, then the deflection at the centre of the beam will be reduced to
62.    A laminated spring is given an initial curvature because
63.    A laminated spring is supported at
64.    Laminated springs are subjected to
65.    Deflection in a leaf spring is more if its
66.    Buckling load for a given column depends upon
67.    When both ends of a column are fixed, the crippling load is P. If one end of the column is made free, the value of crippling load will be changed to
68.    Euler's formula for a mild steel long column hinged at both ends is not valid for slenderness ratio
69.    A long column has maximum crippling load when its
70.    Effective length of a chimney of 20 m height is taken as
71.    Rankine's formula for column is valid when slenderness ratio
72.    Slenderness ratio of a 5 m long column hinged at both ends and having a circular cross-section with diameter 160 mm is
73.    The effect of arching a beam is
74.    Internal forces at every cross-section in a arch are
75.    According to Eddy's theorem, the vertical intercept between the linear arch and the centre line of actual arch at any point represents to some scale
76.    Due to rise in temperature in a three hinged arch, induced stress is
77.    In a three hinged arch, the linear and the actual arch meet at
78.    If a three hinged parabolic arch carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire span, then any section of the arch is subjected to
79.    Three hinged arch is
80.    A linear arch has
81.    A three hinged arch is carrying uniformly distributed load over the entire span. The arch is free from shear force and bending moment if its shape is
82.    For a determinate pin-jointed plane frame, the relation between the number of joints j and members m is given by
83.    The basic perfect frame is a
84.    Method of joints is applicable only when the number of unknown forces at the joint under consideration is not more than
85.    A short column of external diameter of 250 mm and internal diameter of 150 mm carries an eccentric load of 1000 kN. The greatest eccentricity which the load can have without producing tension anywhere is
86.    Proof resilience is the maximum energy stored at
87.    Strain energy stored in a member is given by
88.    A rectangular block of size 200 mm x 100 mm x 50 mm is subjected to a shear stress of 100 N/mm2. If modulus of rigidity of material is 1 x 105 N/mm2, strain energy stored will be
89.     A steel rod of cross sectional area equal to 1000 mm2 is 5 m long. If a pull of 100 kN is suddenly applied to it, then the maximum stress intensity will be
90.    If the depth of a beam of rectangular section is reduced to half, strain energy stored in the beam becomes
91.    The specimen in a Charpy impact test is supported as a
92.    Impact test enables one to estimate the property of
93.    The phenomenon of decreased resistance of a material to reversal of stress is called
94.    The property of metal which allows it to deform continuously at slow rate without any further increase in stress is known as
95.    The stress below which a material has a high probability of not failing under reversal of stress is known as
96.    A three hinged parabolic arch rib is acted upon by a single load at the left quarter point. If the central rise is increased and the shape of arch altered to segmental without changing the other details, the horizontal thrust will
97.    For ductile materials, the most appropriate failure theory is
98.    At a point in a steel member, the major principal stress is 2000 kg/cm2 and the minor principal stress is compressive. If the uni-axial tensile yield stress is 2500 kg/cm2, then the magnitude of the minor principal stress at which yielding will commence, according to the maximum shearing stress theory, is
99.    For the design of a cast iron member, the most appropriate theory of failure is

Building Materials and Construction Multiple Choice Questions and Answers preparation for gate exams - Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1.    Gypsum is a
2.    Which of the following sedimentary rocks changes into quartzite by metamorphic action ?
3.    Which of the following represents a metamorphic rock?
4.    Quartitze is a
5.    Which of the following is a mineral ?
6.    Slate is formed by metamorphic action on
7.    Sandstone is a
8.    Which of the following is a rock ?
9.      Based on the following rocks and minerals, select the correct statement, quartz, shale, basalt, granite, marble, gypsum, mica
10.    A heavy stone is suitable for
11.    The stone suitable for rubble masonry should be.
12.    Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the most weather resisting characteristics?
13.    A good building stone should not absorb water more than
14.    Which of the following has more fire resisting characteristics ?
15.    Jumper is a tool used for
16.    The important test to be conducted on a stone used in docks and harbors is-
17.    The predominant constituent which is responsible for strength in granite is
18.    Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because
19.    Which of the following stone is best suited for construction of piers and abutments of a railway bridge ?
20.    The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or to obtain stones of required size and shape is known as
21.    Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more than
22.    Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between
23.    Spalling hammer is used for
24.    Cross cut saw is used for
25.    Sapwood consists of
26.    Which of the following trees yields hard wood ?
27.    The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are known as
28.    In which of the following pairs both trees yield soft wood?
29.     Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports goods ?
30.     Assertion A : Shishum is used for decorative woodwork.
        Reason R : Shishum can be polished to an excellent finish.
        Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
31.     The disease of dry rot in timber is caused by
32.     Plywood has the advantage of'
33.     In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum ?
34.     The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is
35.     The trunk of tree left after cutting all the branches is known as
36.    The age of a tree can be known by examining
37.    Plywood is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in such a way that the angle between grains of any layer to grains of adjacent layers is
38.    The plywood
39.    The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air drying of timber is
40.    First class timber has an average life of
41.    A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not absorb water more than
42.    Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than
43.    The main function of alumina in brick earth is
44.    The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between
45.    Excess of alumina in brick earth makes the brick
46.    The nominal size of the modular brick is
47.    Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between
48.    Excess of silica in brick earth results in
49.    Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape ?
50.    Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful and harmful constituents respectively of a good brick earth ?
51.    The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as
52.    Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that
53.     The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is
54.    Pug mill is used for
55.    Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces ?
56.    The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on
57.    Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is
58.    Glazing is used to make earthenware
59.    Quick lime is
60.    Quick lime is
61.    Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength.
        Reason R : Pure lime has slow hardening characteristics.
        Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
62.    Hydraulic lime is obtained by
63.    The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is
64.    Study the following statements.
65.    The main ingredients of Portland cement are
66.    The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable properties of cement is
67.    Le Chatelier's device is used for determining the
68.    The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of cement is
69.    The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS specifications should not be less than
70.    As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement should be
71.     For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is
72.    The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about
73.    Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to
74.    After storage, the strength of cement
75.    According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary portland cement after three days should not be less than
76.    Addition of pozzolana to ordinary Portland cement increases
77.    Gypsum consists of
78.    For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing cement and standard sand in the proportions of
79.    The slump recommended for mass concrete is about
80.    With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand
81.    Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large dams ?
82.    Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in
83.    The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete is
84.    The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in cement in percentage by weight of cement is
85.    The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is
86.    Which of the following cements contains maximum percentage of dicalcium silicate?
87.    The most commonly used retarder in cement is
88.    Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for production of steel are
89.    Compared to mild steel, cast iron has
90.    Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence on properties of steel?
91.    Which of the following is the purest form of iron ?
92.    The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is about
93.    Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is
94.    Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of structural steel ?
95.    The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural beams and channels is
96.    Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of
97.    Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for painting of iron works.
        Reason R : Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron.
        Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
98.     The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is
99.     The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually
100.    Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for indoor painting.
           Reason R : Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners.
           Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
101.    In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in each course is known as
102.    The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of wall is
103.    The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be
104.    Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker walls ?
105.    A queen closer is a
106.    Minimum thickness of wall where single flemish bond can be used is
107.    The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and for forming joints is
108.    Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usater than
109.    The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is
110.    A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as

Soil Mechanics and Foundation Engineering Multiple Choice Questions and Answers preparation for gate exams - Civil Engineering Questions and Answers

1.      Residual soils are formed by
2.      Water content of soil can
3.      Which of the following types of soil is transported by gravitational forces ?
4.      A fully saturated soil is said to be
5.      Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of soil in percentage is
7.      A soil has a bulk density of 22 kN/m3 and water content 10 %. The dry density of soil is
8.     If the voids of a soil mass are full of air only, the soil is termed as
9.     Valid range for n, the percentage voids, is
10.    Select the correct statement.
11.    Voids ratio of a soil mass can
12.    If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of solids in a soil mass, then the values of porosity and voids ratio respectively are
13.    When the degree of saturation is zero, the soil mass under consideration represents
14.    Select the correct range of density index,ID
15.    If the degree of saturation of a partially saturated soil is 60%, then air content of the soil is
16.    If the water content of a fully saturated soil mass is 100%, then the voids ratio of the sample is
17.    The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of soil mass is called
18.    Relative density of a compacted dense sand is approximately equal to
19.    If the sand in-situ is in its densest state, then the relative density of sand is
20.    Which of the following methods is most accurate for the determination of the water content of soil ?
21.    For proper field control, which of the following methods is best suited for quick determination of water content  of a soil mass ?
22.    A pycnometer is used to determine
23.    Stoke's law is valid only if the size of particle is
24.    In hydrometer analysis for a soil mass
25.     The hydrometer method of sedimentation analysis differs from the pipette analysis mainly in
26.    Which of the following is a measure of particle size range ?
27.    Which of the following statements is correct?
28.    Uniformity coefficient of a soil is
29.    According to Atterberg, the soil is said to be of medium plasticity if the plasticity index PI is
30.    If the natural water content of soil mass lies between its liquid limit and plastic limit, the soil mass is said to be in
31.    When the plastic limit of a soil is greater than the liquid limit, then the plasticity index is reported as
32.    Toughness index is defined as the ratio of
33.    If the plasticity index of a soil mass is zero, the soil is
34.    The admixture of coarser particles like sand or silt to clay causes
35.    Select the correct statement.
36.    The water content of soil, which represents the boundary between plastic state and liquid state, is known as
37.    Which of the following soils has more plasticity index ?
38.    At liquid limit, all soils possess
39.    If the material of the base of the Casagrande liquid limit device on which the cup containing soil paste drops is
        softer than the standard hard rubber, then
40.    According to IS classification, the range of silt size particles is
41.    Highway Research Board (HRB) classification of soils is based on
42.    Inorganic soils with low compressibility are represented by
43.    Sand particles are made of
44.    The clay mineral with the largest swelling and shrinkage characteristics is
45.    Dispersed type of soil structure is an arrangement comprising particles having
46.    Effective stress is
47.    Rise of water table above the ground surface causes
48.    The total and effective stresses at a depth of 5 m below the top level of water in a swimming pool are respectively
49.    If the water table rises upto ground surface, then the
50.    Quick sand is a
51.    The hydraulic head that would produce a quick condition in a sand stratum of thickness 1.5 m, specific gravity 2.67 and voids ratio 0.67 is equal to
52.    Physical properties of a permeant which influence permeability are
53.    Select the correct statement.
54.    Effective stress on soil
55.    If the permeability of a soil is 0.8 mm/sec, the type of soil is
56.    Which of the following methods is more suitable for the determination of permeability of clayey soil ?
57.    Which of the following methods is best suited for determination of permeability of coarse-grained soils ?
58.    Due to a rise in temperature, the viscosity and the unit weight of the percolating fluid are reduced to 60% and 90% respectively.
        If other things remain constant, the coefficient of permeability
59.    Coefficient of permeability of soil
60.    The average coefficient of permeability of natural deposits
61.    The total discharge from two wells situated near to each other is
62.    The flownet for an earthen dam with 30 m water depth consists of 25 potential drops and 5 flow channels. The coefficient of permeability of dam material is 0.03 mm/sec. The discharge per metre length of dam is
63.    The most suitable method for drainage of fine grained cohesive soils is
64.    Total number of stress components at a point within a soil mass loaded at its boundary is
65.    The slope of isochrone at any point at a given time indicates the rate of change of
66.    Within the consolidation process of a saturated clay
67.    The value of compression index for a remoulded sample whose liquid limit is 50% is
68.    Which one of the following clays behaves like a dense sand ?
69.    Coefficient of consolidation of a soil is affected by
70.    Degree of consolidation is
71.    Time factor for a clay layer is
72.    Clay layer A with single drainage and coefficient of consolidation Cv takes 6 months to achieve 50% consolidation. The time taken by clay layer B of the same thickness with double drainage and coefficient of consolidation Cv/2 to achieve the same degree of consolidation is
73.    Coefficient of consolidation for clays normally
74.    Direct measurement of permeability of the specimen at any stage of loading can be made
75.    Compressibility of sandy soils is
76.    Select the correct statement.
77.    Coefficient of compressibility is
78.    The ultimate consolidation settlement of a structure resting on a soil
79.    The ultimate consolidation settlement of a soil is
80.    A normally consolidated clay settled 10 mm when effective stress was increased from 100 kN/m2 to 200 kN/ m2. If the effective stress is further increased from 200 kN/ m2 to 400 kN/ m2, then the settlement of the same clay is
81.    Coarse grained soils are best compacted by a
82.    With the increase in the amount of compaction energy
83.    The maximum dry density upto which any soil can be compacted depends upon
84.     For better strength and stability, the fine grained soils and coarse grained soils are compacted respectively as
85.     Select the incorrect statement.
86.     For a loose sand sample and a dense sand sample consolidated to the same effective stress
87.    The shear strength of a soil
88.    In a consolidated drained test on a normally consolidated clay, the volume of the soil sample during shear
89.    Skempton's pore pressure coefficient B for saturated soil is
90.    Shear strength of a soil is a unique function of
91.    In a deposit of normally consolidated clay
92.    Select the incorrect statement.
        Effective angle of shearing resistance
93.    Unconfmed compressive strength test is
94.    A cylindrical specimen of saturated soil failed under an axial vertical stress of 100kN/m2 when it was laterally unconfmed. The failure plane was inclined to the horizontal plane at an angle of 45°.
        The values of cohesion and angle of internal friction for the soil are respectively
95.    The angle that Coulomb's failure envelope makes with the horizontal is called
96.    If a cohesive soil specimen is subjected to a vertical compressive load, the inclination of the cracks to the horizontal is
97.    Select the incorrect statement.
98.    If the shearing stress is zero on two planes, then the angle between the two planes is
99.    In the triaxial compression test, the application of additional axial stress (i.e. deviator stress) on the soil specimen produces shear stress on
100.    In a triaxial compression test when drainage is allowed during the first stage (i. e. application of cell pressure) only and not during the second stage (i.e. application of deviator stress at constant cell pressure), the test is known as