1. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should be
2. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are
3. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of
4. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport
capacity: Reason R :Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
5. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
6. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon
7. The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require
8. The minimum width of clearway is
9. If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25° C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46° C, the airport reference temperature is
10. Consider the following statements regarding iCAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length
11. The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be.
12. The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be
13. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be
14. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:
15. The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be
16. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed
17. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than
18. For determining the basic runway.length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is
19. According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are
20. Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of
21. The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are
22. In Intrumental landing system, the middle markers are located
23. The size of landing area for multiengined helicopters operating under 1FR conditions is
24. The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and take off area should be
25. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be
26. Assertion A : Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions.
Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor
visibility conditions.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
27. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R:The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway. Select your answer based on coding system given below
28. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is
29. As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the number of movements allowed are
30. Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements ?
31. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the
32. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft ?
33. The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be
34. The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is
35. In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more than
36. Maximum gross take-off weight of an aircraft is
37. Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of
38. Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing?
39. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well-separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be
40. Castor angle is defined as the angle
41. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be
2. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are
3. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of
4. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport
capacity: Reason R :Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
5. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
6. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon
7. The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require
8. The minimum width of clearway is
9. If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25° C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46° C, the airport reference temperature is
10. Consider the following statements regarding iCAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length
11. The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be.
12. The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be
13. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be
14. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:
15. The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be
16. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed
17. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than
18. For determining the basic runway.length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is
19. According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are
20. Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of
21. The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are
22. In Intrumental landing system, the middle markers are located
23. The size of landing area for multiengined helicopters operating under 1FR conditions is
24. The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and take off area should be
25. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be
26. Assertion A : Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions.
Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor
visibility conditions.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
27. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R:The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway. Select your answer based on coding system given below
28. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is
29. As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the number of movements allowed are
30. Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements ?
31. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the
32. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft ?
33. The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be
34. The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is
35. In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more than
36. Maximum gross take-off weight of an aircraft is
37. Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of
38. Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing?
39. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well-separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be
40. Castor angle is defined as the angle
41. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be
No comments:
Post a Comment