1. Which of the following methods of applying water may be used on rolling land ?
2. The value of Sodium Absorption Ratio for high sodium water lies between
3. Optimum depth of kor watering for rice is
4. Irrigation water having the concentration of Na++ , Ca++ and Mg++ as 20, 3 and 1 milli-equivalent per litre respectively will be classified as
5. The duty is largest _______.
6. The "outlet discharge factor" is the duty at the head of
7. The kor depth for rice is 190 mm and kor period is 14 days. The outlet factor for this will be
8. For supplying water to rabi crop, kharif crop and sugarcane, the channel is designed for a capacity equal to the greater of the water requirement of
9. The ratio of the quantity of water stored in the root zone of the crops to the quantity of water actually delivered in the field is known as
10. The water utilizable by plants is available in soils mainly in the form of
11. The amount of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs of the crop during its full growth is called
12. With the increase in the quantity of water supplied, the yield of most crops
13. Hydrograph is the graphical representation of
14. Infiltration rate is always ______.
15. The depth of water required to bring the soil moisture content of a given soil upto its field capacity is called
16. Infiltration capacity ________.
17. Infiltration is the ______.
18. If the intensity of rainfall is more than the infiltration capacity of soil, then the infiltration rate will be
19. Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting of an air mass due to
20. Which of the following is a non-recording raingauge ?
21. A raingauge should preferably be fixed
22. Which of the following types of rain gauges is used for measuring rain in remote hilly inaccessible areas ?
23. Rate of evaporation from a water surface increases if
24. A 70% index of wetness means ______.
25. Under the same conditions, which of the following shapes of water surface will give the highest rate of evaporation ?
26. Assertion A : To estimate the rainfall over a catchment, the number of raingauges required per unit area is large for hilly areas. Reason R : Rainfall gradient is steep. Select your correct answer according to the coding system given below :
27. When surface of transpiration is submer¬ged under water, then potential evapotranspiration is
28. Unit of runoff in M.K.S. system is ______.
29. The runoff increases with ______.
30. The area between the isohyets 45 cm and 55 cm is 100 square km and between 55 cm and 65 cm is 150 square km. The average depth of annua! precipitation over the above basin of 250 square km will be
31. A current meter is used to measure the
32. If it rains between 2 P.M. and 3 P.M. and the entire basin area just starts contributing water at 3 P.M. to the outlet, then time of concentration will be
33. The rainfall on five successive days were measured as 100 mm, 80 mm, 60 mm, 40 mm and 20 mm respectively. If the infiltration index or the storm loss rate for the catchment area is earlier estimated as 50 mm/day, the total surface run off will be
34. The normal annual precipitation at stations X, A, B and C are 700 mm, 1000 mm, 900 mm and 800 mm respectively. If the storm precipitation at three station A, B and C were 100 mm, 90 mm and 80 mm respectively, then the storm precipitation for station X will be
35. The best unit duration of storm for a unit hydrograph is
36. The unit hydrograph due to a storm may be obtained by dividing the ordinates of the direct runoff hydrograph by
37. The unit hydrograph of a specified duration can be used to evaluate the hydrograph of storms of
38. S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit hydrograph of
39. The relation between probability (P) and recurrence interval (T) is given by
40. Dimensions of coefficient of transmissibility are ______.
41. If d is the depth of the aquifer through which water is flowing, then the relationship between permeability k and transmissibility T is given by
42. An artesian aquifer is the one where ______.
43. A deep well ______.
44. A multipurpose reservoir is the one which is _______.
45. The useful storage is the volume of water stored in the reservoir between
46. The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is called
47. For a flood control reservoir, the effective storage is equal to
48. Trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of
49. The total capacity of a reservoir is 25 million cubic metres and dead storage is 5 million cubic metres. If the average volume of sediment deposition is 0.10 million cubic metre per year, then the usefulness of the reservoir will start reducing after
50. The forces, which are considered for the analysis of an elementary profile of a gravity dam under empty reservoir condition, are
51. When the upstream face of a gravity dam is vertical, then the intensity of water pressure at the water surface and at the base respectively will be
52. The uplift pressure on a dam can be controlled by
53. The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage gallery in a dam is taken as
54. Horizontal acceleration due to earthquake results in
55. Hydrodynamic pressure due to earthquake acts at a height of
56. The major resisting force in a gravity dam is
57. When the reservoir is full, the maximum compressive force in a gravity dam is produced
58. The maximum permissible eccentricity for no tension at the base of a gravity dam is
59. Presence of tail water in a gravity dam
60. For wave action in dams, the maximum height of freeboard is generally taken to be equal to
61. As compared to gravity dams, earthen dams
62. The most suitable material for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type dam is
63. Seepage through embankments in an earthen dam is controlled by
64. Seepage through foundation in an earthen dam is controlled by providing
65. The flow of water after spilling over the weir crest in chute spillway and side channel spillway respectively are
66. The discharge passing over an ogee spillway is given by
67. Coefficient of discharge of an ogee spillway
68. Which of the following spillways is least suitable for an earthen dam ?
69. In case of non-availability of space due to topography, the most suitable spillway is
70. In a chute spillway, the flow is usually
71. For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the most adverse condition for stability of slope is
72. If there are two canals taking off from each flank of a river, then there will be
73. Generally the weir is aligned at right angles to the direction of the main river current because
74. The main function of a divide wall is to
75. A divide wall is provided
76. As compared to crest of the normal portion of the weir, the crest of the undersluice portion of weir is kept at
77. Silt ex-cluders are constructed on the
78. According to Khosla's theory, the exit gradient in the absence of a downstream cutoff is
79. The minimum size of stone that will remain at rest in a channel of longitudinal slope S and hydraulic mean depth R is given by
80. The ratio of average values of shear stres¬ses produced on the bed and the banks of a channel due to flowing water is
81. If the critical shear stress of a channel is xc, then the average value of shear stress required to move the grain on the bank is
82. As per Lacey's theory, the silt factor is
83. Wetted perimeter of a regime channel for a discharge of 64 cumecs as per Lacey's theory will be
84. Which of the following canal structures is used to remove surplus water from an irrigation channel into a natural drain ?
85. For a proportional outlet, the flexibility is
86. The sensitivity of a rigid module is
87. Which of the following is a flexible outlet ?
88. A straight glacis type fall with a baffle platform and a baffle wall is called
89. Which of the following types of falls use parabolic glacis for energy dissipation ?
90. In a Sarda type fall, rectangular crest is used for discharge upto
91. Which of the following can be used as a meter fall ?
92. Vertical drop fall is satisfactory for a height upto
93. Which of the following canal outlets maintains a constant discharge ?
94. The ratio of rate of change of the discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of the discharge of distributing channel is called
95. The drainage water intercepting the canal can be disposed of by passing the canal below the drainage in
96. If the R.L's of canal bed level and high flood level of drainage are 212.0 m and 210.0 m respectively, then cross drainage work will be
97. The aqueduct or superpassage type of works are generally used when
98. An aggrading river is a
99. Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of
100. The meander pattern of a river is deve-loped by
101. The main cause of meandering is
102. Tortuosity of a meandering river is always
103. Select the correct statement.
104. River training for depth is achieved by
105. Main purpose of mean water training for rivers is
106. If D is the depth of scour below original bed, then the width of launching apron is generally taken as
107. Study the following statements.
108. A repelling groyne is aligned
109. A river training work is generally required when the river is
110. A river bend characterized by silting
111. Select the incorrect statement.
112. A land is known as waterlogged
113. Lining of irrigation channels
114. A runoff river plant is
115. The net speed under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency is called
116. A runoff river plant
117. The net head under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency at synchronous speed is called
118. The ratio of the average load to the installed capacity of the plant whose reserve capacity is zero will be equal to
119. A hydroelectric scheme operating under a head of 80 m will be classified as
120. A hyetograph is a graphical representation of
2. The value of Sodium Absorption Ratio for high sodium water lies between
3. Optimum depth of kor watering for rice is
4. Irrigation water having the concentration of Na++ , Ca++ and Mg++ as 20, 3 and 1 milli-equivalent per litre respectively will be classified as
5. The duty is largest _______.
6. The "outlet discharge factor" is the duty at the head of
7. The kor depth for rice is 190 mm and kor period is 14 days. The outlet factor for this will be
8. For supplying water to rabi crop, kharif crop and sugarcane, the channel is designed for a capacity equal to the greater of the water requirement of
9. The ratio of the quantity of water stored in the root zone of the crops to the quantity of water actually delivered in the field is known as
10. The water utilizable by plants is available in soils mainly in the form of
11. The amount of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs of the crop during its full growth is called
12. With the increase in the quantity of water supplied, the yield of most crops
13. Hydrograph is the graphical representation of
14. Infiltration rate is always ______.
15. The depth of water required to bring the soil moisture content of a given soil upto its field capacity is called
16. Infiltration capacity ________.
17. Infiltration is the ______.
18. If the intensity of rainfall is more than the infiltration capacity of soil, then the infiltration rate will be
19. Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting of an air mass due to
20. Which of the following is a non-recording raingauge ?
21. A raingauge should preferably be fixed
22. Which of the following types of rain gauges is used for measuring rain in remote hilly inaccessible areas ?
23. Rate of evaporation from a water surface increases if
24. A 70% index of wetness means ______.
25. Under the same conditions, which of the following shapes of water surface will give the highest rate of evaporation ?
26. Assertion A : To estimate the rainfall over a catchment, the number of raingauges required per unit area is large for hilly areas. Reason R : Rainfall gradient is steep. Select your correct answer according to the coding system given below :
27. When surface of transpiration is submer¬ged under water, then potential evapotranspiration is
28. Unit of runoff in M.K.S. system is ______.
29. The runoff increases with ______.
30. The area between the isohyets 45 cm and 55 cm is 100 square km and between 55 cm and 65 cm is 150 square km. The average depth of annua! precipitation over the above basin of 250 square km will be
31. A current meter is used to measure the
32. If it rains between 2 P.M. and 3 P.M. and the entire basin area just starts contributing water at 3 P.M. to the outlet, then time of concentration will be
33. The rainfall on five successive days were measured as 100 mm, 80 mm, 60 mm, 40 mm and 20 mm respectively. If the infiltration index or the storm loss rate for the catchment area is earlier estimated as 50 mm/day, the total surface run off will be
34. The normal annual precipitation at stations X, A, B and C are 700 mm, 1000 mm, 900 mm and 800 mm respectively. If the storm precipitation at three station A, B and C were 100 mm, 90 mm and 80 mm respectively, then the storm precipitation for station X will be
35. The best unit duration of storm for a unit hydrograph is
36. The unit hydrograph due to a storm may be obtained by dividing the ordinates of the direct runoff hydrograph by
37. The unit hydrograph of a specified duration can be used to evaluate the hydrograph of storms of
38. S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit hydrograph of
39. The relation between probability (P) and recurrence interval (T) is given by
40. Dimensions of coefficient of transmissibility are ______.
41. If d is the depth of the aquifer through which water is flowing, then the relationship between permeability k and transmissibility T is given by
42. An artesian aquifer is the one where ______.
43. A deep well ______.
44. A multipurpose reservoir is the one which is _______.
45. The useful storage is the volume of water stored in the reservoir between
46. The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is called
47. For a flood control reservoir, the effective storage is equal to
48. Trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of
49. The total capacity of a reservoir is 25 million cubic metres and dead storage is 5 million cubic metres. If the average volume of sediment deposition is 0.10 million cubic metre per year, then the usefulness of the reservoir will start reducing after
50. The forces, which are considered for the analysis of an elementary profile of a gravity dam under empty reservoir condition, are
51. When the upstream face of a gravity dam is vertical, then the intensity of water pressure at the water surface and at the base respectively will be
52. The uplift pressure on a dam can be controlled by
53. The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage gallery in a dam is taken as
54. Horizontal acceleration due to earthquake results in
55. Hydrodynamic pressure due to earthquake acts at a height of
56. The major resisting force in a gravity dam is
57. When the reservoir is full, the maximum compressive force in a gravity dam is produced
58. The maximum permissible eccentricity for no tension at the base of a gravity dam is
59. Presence of tail water in a gravity dam
60. For wave action in dams, the maximum height of freeboard is generally taken to be equal to
61. As compared to gravity dams, earthen dams
62. The most suitable material for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type dam is
63. Seepage through embankments in an earthen dam is controlled by
64. Seepage through foundation in an earthen dam is controlled by providing
65. The flow of water after spilling over the weir crest in chute spillway and side channel spillway respectively are
66. The discharge passing over an ogee spillway is given by
67. Coefficient of discharge of an ogee spillway
68. Which of the following spillways is least suitable for an earthen dam ?
69. In case of non-availability of space due to topography, the most suitable spillway is
70. In a chute spillway, the flow is usually
71. For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the most adverse condition for stability of slope is
72. If there are two canals taking off from each flank of a river, then there will be
73. Generally the weir is aligned at right angles to the direction of the main river current because
74. The main function of a divide wall is to
75. A divide wall is provided
76. As compared to crest of the normal portion of the weir, the crest of the undersluice portion of weir is kept at
77. Silt ex-cluders are constructed on the
78. According to Khosla's theory, the exit gradient in the absence of a downstream cutoff is
79. The minimum size of stone that will remain at rest in a channel of longitudinal slope S and hydraulic mean depth R is given by
80. The ratio of average values of shear stres¬ses produced on the bed and the banks of a channel due to flowing water is
81. If the critical shear stress of a channel is xc, then the average value of shear stress required to move the grain on the bank is
82. As per Lacey's theory, the silt factor is
83. Wetted perimeter of a regime channel for a discharge of 64 cumecs as per Lacey's theory will be
84. Which of the following canal structures is used to remove surplus water from an irrigation channel into a natural drain ?
85. For a proportional outlet, the flexibility is
86. The sensitivity of a rigid module is
87. Which of the following is a flexible outlet ?
88. A straight glacis type fall with a baffle platform and a baffle wall is called
89. Which of the following types of falls use parabolic glacis for energy dissipation ?
90. In a Sarda type fall, rectangular crest is used for discharge upto
91. Which of the following can be used as a meter fall ?
92. Vertical drop fall is satisfactory for a height upto
93. Which of the following canal outlets maintains a constant discharge ?
94. The ratio of rate of change of the discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of the discharge of distributing channel is called
95. The drainage water intercepting the canal can be disposed of by passing the canal below the drainage in
96. If the R.L's of canal bed level and high flood level of drainage are 212.0 m and 210.0 m respectively, then cross drainage work will be
97. The aqueduct or superpassage type of works are generally used when
98. An aggrading river is a
99. Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of
100. The meander pattern of a river is deve-loped by
101. The main cause of meandering is
102. Tortuosity of a meandering river is always
103. Select the correct statement.
104. River training for depth is achieved by
105. Main purpose of mean water training for rivers is
106. If D is the depth of scour below original bed, then the width of launching apron is generally taken as
107. Study the following statements.
108. A repelling groyne is aligned
109. A river training work is generally required when the river is
110. A river bend characterized by silting
111. Select the incorrect statement.
112. A land is known as waterlogged
113. Lining of irrigation channels
114. A runoff river plant is
115. The net speed under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency is called
116. A runoff river plant
117. The net head under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency at synchronous speed is called
118. The ratio of the average load to the installed capacity of the plant whose reserve capacity is zero will be equal to
119. A hydroelectric scheme operating under a head of 80 m will be classified as
120. A hyetograph is a graphical representation of
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